Free CompTIA Security+ Practice Test Questions and Answers

The CompTIA Security+ is known to be a globally recognized certification. It validates the knowledge and skills that are very important to secure networks, systems, and data. This certification is specially designed for IT professionals who are looking for a way to start a career in cybersecurity. Those who need to enhance their existing security knowledge are also encouraged to take the exam. This certification is vendor-natural and thus not tied to any specific technology making it widely applicable.

The certification exam covers a wide range of topics including threat management, network security, access control, cryptography, identity management, and risk management. Passing this certification exam validates an individual’s ability to identify and address security vulnerabilities.

• Objectives of CompTIA Security+ Exam (SY0-601)
  • Threats, attacks, and vulnerabilities
  • Architecture and design
  • Implementation
  • Operations and incident response
  • Governance, risk, and compliance
• CompTIA Security+ Practice Test Questions

Objectives of CompTIA Security+ Exam (SY0-601)

Threats, attacks, and vulnerabilities

• It helps you understand the different types of malware, attack techniques, and threat actors.
• It explains how to analyze vulnerability scanning concepts and the right way to implement mitigation strategies.

Architecture and design

• It explains how to compare and contrast network and security technologies.
• How to implement secure network architecture and system design principles.
• Similarly, you will address secure application development and deployment concepts.

Implementation

• You will learn to install and configure identity access services.
• How to implement secure network components and host security solutions.
• Similarly, you will understand how it ensures security in mobile solutions and devices.

Operations and incident response

• The objective of this section is to establish incident response and recovery procedures.
• You will explore digital forensics concepts for investigation and analysis.
• You will learn to implement data privacy and protection measures.

Governance, risk, and compliance

• This section emphasizes on the importance of policies, procedures, and awareness in maintaining security.
• You will understand all the risk management concepts and approaches.
• How to implement relevant regulations, standards, and frameworks.

So the above were the objectives of this exam and if you focus on these objectives then this shows you have a comprehensive understanding of cybersecurity principles. This also validates you are capable of identifying and mitigating security risks and security incidents. Note that the above objectives are based on the SY0-601 version of the exam and thus it is recommended to refer to the official CompTIA website for updated information.

CompTIA Security+ Practice Test Questions

Beginner level:

Q1. What is the purpose of a Certificate Authority (CA) in a public key infrastructure (PKI)?

• A To encrypt data during transmission
• B To authenticate digital certificates
• C To detect and prevent network intrusions
• D To enforce access control policies

Correct Answer: B

Check out the Solution:

The primary role of a Certificate Authority (CA) in a PKI is to verify the authenticity and integrity of digital certificates. CAs issue digital certificates that bind public keys to an individual or organization, ensuring trust and security in online communications.

Q2. Which of the following is an example of a symmetric encryption algorithm?

• A RSA
• B AES
• C Diffie-Hellman
• D SSL

Correct Answer: B

Check out the Solution:

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is an example of a symmetric encryption algorithm. It uses a single shared key for both encryption and decryption processes, making it efficient for encrypting large amounts of data.

Q3. What is the purpose of a demilitarized zone (DMZ) in network security?

• A To provide secure remote access to internal resources
• B To detect and block malicious network traffic
• C To create a buffer zone between internal and external networks
• To encrypt data during transmission

Correct Answer: C

Check out the Solution:

A DMZ is a network segment that separates an internal network from an external network, typically the internet. It acts as a buffer zone that hosts publicly accessible services while isolating the internal network from potential external threats.

Q4. What is the purpose of multifactor authentication (MFA)?

• A To prevent unauthorized access through physical barriers
• B To encrypt sensitive data at rest
• C To verify user identity using multiple credentials
• D To detect and block network intrusions

Correct Answer: C

Check out the Solution:

Multifactor authentication (MFA) adds an extra layer of security by requiring users to provide multiple forms of identification or credentials to prove their identity. This typically includes a combination of something the user knows (password), something the user has (smart card), or something the user is (biometric data).

Q5. Which of the following is an example of a security control that falls under administrative controls?

• A Firewall
• B Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
• C Security awareness training
• D Encryption

Correct Answer: C

Check out the Solution:

Administrative controls, also known as procedural controls, involve policies, procedures, and guidelines that govern security practices within an organization. Security awareness training is an example of an administrative control that educates employees about security best practices and policies to reduce human-related security risks.

Q6. Which of the following is an example of a social engineering attack?

• A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
• B Man-in-the-Middle (MitM)
• C Phishing
• D SQL injection

Correct Answer: C

Check out the Solution:

Phishing is a social engineering attack where an attacker attempts to trick individuals into revealing sensitive information, such as passwords or credit card numbers, by posing as a legitimate entity through deceptive emails, websites, or messages.

Q7. What is the purpose of penetration testing?

• A To encrypt data during transmission
• B To simulate real-world attacks and identify vulnerabilities
• C To authenticate digital certificates
• D To enforce access control policies

Check out our comprehensive guide to Free Penetration Testing Courses.

Correct Answer: B

Check out the Solution:

Penetration testing, also known as ethical hacking, is the process of simulating real-world attacks on a system, network, or application to identify vulnerabilities and weaknesses. It helps organizations proactively assess their security posture and implement appropriate countermeasures.

Q8. What is the primary purpose of a security policy?

• A To enforce access control
• B To detect and prevent network intrusions
• C To provide secure remote access to internal resources
• D To guide and define security practices within an organization

Correct Answer: D

Check out the Solution:

A security policy is a document that outlines an organization’s guidelines, rules, and procedures related to information security. It provides a framework for consistent security practices, defines roles and responsibilities, and helps ensure compliance with industry regulations and standards.

Q9. Which of the following is an example of a physical security control?

• A Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
• B Firewall
• C Biometric access control system
• D Encryption

Correct Answer: C

Check out the Solution:

Physical security controls involve measures to protect physical assets, premises, and resources. A biometric access control system, which uses unique physiological or behavioral characteristics like fingerprints or iris patterns for authentication, is an example of a physical security control.

Q10. What is the purpose of a data loss prevention (DLP) system?

• A To detect and block network intrusions
• B To encrypt sensitive data at rest
• C To prevent unauthorized access through physical barriers
• D To monitor and prevent the unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information

Correct Answer: D

Check out the Solutions:

A data loss prevention (DLP) system is designed to monitor, detect, and prevent the unauthorized disclosure of sensitive data. It helps organizations identify and control the movement of sensitive information to prevent data breaches or accidental data leaks.

Intermediate level:

Q1. What is the purpose of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

• A To encrypt data during transmission
• B To prevent unauthorized access through physical barriers
• C To detect and respond to malicious network activity
• D To enforce access control policies

Correct Answer: C

Check out the Solution:

An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) monitors network traffic to identify and alert on suspicious or malicious activity. It helps detect intrusion attempts, potential security breaches, or policy violations, enabling timely response and mitigation.

Q2. What is the role of a security incident response team?

• A To enforce access control policies
• B To detect and prevent network intrusions
• C To provide secure remote access to internal resources
• D To coordinate and respond to security incidents

Correct Answer: D

Check out the Solution:

A security incident response team, also known as a CERT (Computer Emergency Response Team) or CSIRT (Computer Security Incident Response Team), is responsible for coordinating and responding to security incidents, investigating breaches, and implementing incident response plans to mitigate risks.

Q3. Which of the following is an example of a security control that falls under technical controls?

• A Security awareness training
• B Security policy implementation
• C Firewalls
• D Background checks

Correct Answer: C

Check out the Solution:

Technical controls are security measures that rely on technology or mechanisms to protect systems and data. Firewalls, which filter and monitor network traffic based on predefined rules, are an example of a technical control used to enforce network security policies.

Q4. What is the purpose of a vulnerability assessment?

• A To encrypt sensitive data at rest
• B To authenticate digital certificates
• C To identify and prioritize security vulnerabilities
• D To prevent unauthorized access through physical barriers

Correct Answer: C

Check out the Solution:

A vulnerability assessment involves scanning and evaluating systems, networks, or applications to identify and assess security vulnerabilities. The results help prioritize remediation efforts and mitigate potential risks before they can be exploited.

Q5. What is the principle behind the concept of defense in depth?

• A Encrypting data during transmission and at rest
• B Detecting and blocking network intrusions
• C Implementing multiple layers of security controls
• D Enforcing strict access control policies

Correct Answer: C

Check out the Solution:

Defense in depth is a security strategy that involves implementing multiple layers of security controls at different levels, such as network, system, and application layers. This approach provides redundancy and mitigates the impact of a single security failure.

Advance Level:

Q1. Which of the following authentication methods provides the strongest level of security?

• A Username and password
• B One-time password (OTP)
• C Biometric authentication
• D Smart card authentication

Correct Answer: C

Check out the Solution:

Biometric authentication uses unique physiological or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or voice recognition, to verify an individual’s identity. Biometrics offer a high level of security as they are difficult to forge or replicate.

Q2. What is the purpose of a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system?

• A To detect and respond to security incidents in real-time
• B To encrypt data during transmission
• C To enforce access control policies
• D To provide secure remote access to internal resources
  

Correct Answer: A

Check out the Solution:

A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system collects and analyzes security event logs and data from various sources, enabling real-time monitoring, correlation, and alerting. SIEM helps identify and respond to security incidents promptly.

Q3. What is the purpose of application hardening in software development?

• A To encrypt sensitive data at rest
• B To enforce access control policies
• C To minimize security vulnerabilities and weaknesses
• D To detect and block network intrusions

Correct Answer: C

Check out the Solution:

Application hardening involves implementing security measures during the software development process to minimize vulnerabilities and weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers. It includes techniques like code obfuscation, input validation, and secure coding practices.

Q4. What is the primary purpose of a hardware security module (HSM)?

A To encrypt data during transmission
B To enforce access control policies
C To generate and store cryptographic keys securely
D To detect and prevent network intrusions

Correct Answer: C

Check out the Solution:

A hardware security module (HSM) is a dedicated hardware device that provides secure key management and cryptographic operations. HSMs generate, store, and protect cryptographic keys, ensuring their confidentiality and integrity.

Q5. What is the concept of “zero trust” in cybersecurity?

• A Trusting all users and devices by default
• B Blocking all network traffic by default
• C Verifying and authorizing all access attempts regardless of location or source
• D Limiting access to trusted devices and networks only

Correct Answer: C

Check out the Soultion:

The concept of “zero trust” in cybersecurity assumes that no user or device should be inherently trusted, even if they are within the internal network. It requires verifying and authorizing all access attempts, regardless of the user’s location or the source of the request.

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